212-82 Exam - Certified Cybersecurity Technician(C|CT)

NEW QUESTION 1
Desmond, a forensic officer, was investigating a compromised machine involved in various online attacks. For this purpose. Desmond employed a forensic tool to extract and analyze computer-based evidence to retrieve information related to websites accessed from the victim machine. Identify the computer-created evidence retrieved by Desmond in this scenario.

• A. Cookies
• B. Documents
• C. Address books
• D. Compressed files

Answer: A

Explanation:
Cookies are the computer-created evidence retrieved by Desmond in this scenario. Cookies are small files that are stored on a user’s computer by a web browser when the user visits a website. Cookies can contain information such as user preferences, login details, browsing history, or tracking data. Cookies can be used to extract and analyze computer-based evidence to retrieve information related to websites accessed from the victim machine2. References: Cookies

NEW QUESTION 2
Rhett, a security professional at an organization, was instructed to deploy an IDS solution on their corporate network to defend against evolving threats. For this purpose, Rhett selected an IDS solution that first creates models for possible intrusions and then compares these models with incoming events to make detection decisions.
Identify the detection method employed by the IDS solution in the above scenario.

• A. Not-use detection
• B. Protocol anomaly detection
• C. Anomaly detection
• D. Signature recognition

Answer: C

Explanation:
Anomaly detection is a type of IDS detection method that involves first creating models for possible intrusions and then comparing these models with incoming events to make a detection decision. It can detect unknown or zero-day attacks by looking for deviations from normal or expected behavior

NEW QUESTION 3
A software team at an MNC was involved in a project aimed at developing software that could detect the oxygen levels of a person without physical contact, a helpful solution for pandemic situations. For this purpose, the team used a wireless technology that could digitally transfer data between two devices within a short range of up to 5 m and only worked in the absence of physical blockage or obstacle between the two devices, identify the technology employed by the software team in the above scenario.

• A. Infrared
• B. USB
• C. CPS
• D. Satcom

Answer: A

Explanation:

Infrared is a wireless technology that can digitally transfer data between two devices within a short range of up to 5 m and only works in the absence of physical blockage or obstacle between the two devices. Infrared is commonly used for remote controls, wireless keyboards, and medical devices.
References: Infrared Technology

NEW QUESTION 4
Ashton is working as a security specialist in SoftEight Tech. He was instructed by the management to strengthen the Internet access policy. For this purpose, he implemented a type of Internet access policy that forbids everything and imposes strict restrictions on all company computers, whether it is system or network usage.
Identify the type of Internet access policy implemented by Ashton in the above scenario.

• A. Paranoid policy
• B. Prudent policy
• C. Permissive policy
• D. Promiscuous policy

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is A, as it identifies the type of Internet access policy implemented by Ashton in the above scenario. An Internet access policy is a set of rules and guidelines that defines how an organization’s employees or members can use the Internet and what types of websites or services they can access. There are different types of Internet access policies, such as:
✑ Paranoid policy: This type of policy forbids everything and imposes strict restrictions on all company computers, whether it is system or network usage. This policy is suitable for organizations that deal with highly sensitive or classified information and have a high level of security and compliance requirements.
✑ Prudent policy: This type of policy allows some things and blocks others and imposes moderate restrictions on company computers, depending on the role and responsibility of the user. This policy is suitable for organizations that deal with confidential or proprietary information and have a medium level of security and compliance requirements.
✑ Permissive policy: This type of policy allows most things and blocks few and imposes minimal restrictions on company computers, as long as the user does not violate any laws or regulations. This policy is suitable for organizations that deal with public or general information and have a low level of security and compliance requirements.
✑ Promiscuous policy: This type of policy allows everything and blocks nothing and imposes no restrictions on company computers, regardless of the user’s role or responsibility. This policy is suitable for organizations that have no security or compliance requirements and trust their employees or members to use the Internet responsibly.
In the above scenario, Ashton implemented a paranoid policy that forbids everything and imposes strict restrictions on all company computers, whether it is system or network usage. Option B is incorrect, as it does not identify the type of Internet access policy implemented by Ashton in the above scenario. A prudent policy allows some things and blocks others and imposes moderate restrictions on company computers, depending on the role and responsibility of the user. In the above scenario, Ashton did not implement a prudent policy, but a paranoid policy. Option C is incorrect, as it does not identify the type of Internet access policy implemented by Ashton in the above scenario. A permissive policy allows most things and blocks few and imposes minimal restrictions on company computers, as long as the user does not violate any laws or regulations. In the above scenario, Ashton did not implement a permissive policy, but a paranoid policy. Option D is incorrect, as it does not identify the type of Internet access policy implemented by Ashton in the above scenario. A promiscuous policy allows everything and blocks nothing and imposes no restrictions on company computers, regardless of the user’s role or responsibility. In the above scenario, Ashton did not implement a promiscuous policy, but a paranoid policy.
References: , Section 6.2

NEW QUESTION 5
Lorenzo, a security professional in an MNC, was instructed to establish centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting for remote-access servers. For this purpose, he implemented a protocol that is based on the client-server model and works at the transport layer of the OSI model.
Identify the remote authentication protocol employed by Lorenzo in the above scenario.

• A. SNMPv3
• B. RADIUS
• C. POP3S
• D. IMAPS

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is B, as it identifies the remote authentication protocol employed by Lorenzo in the above scenario. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) for remote-access servers such as VPNs (Virtual Private Networks), wireless networks, or dial-up connections. RADIUS is based on the client-server model and works at the transport layer of the OSI model. RADIUS uses UDP (User Datagram Protocol) as its transport protocol and encrypts only user passwords in its messages. In the above scenario, Lorenzo implemented RADIUS to provide centralized AAA for remote-access servers. Option A is incorrect, as it does not identify the remote authentication protocol employed by Lorenzo in the above scenario. SNMPv3 (Simple Network Management Protocol version 3) is a protocol that provides network management and monitoring for network devices such as routers, switches, servers, or printers. SNMPv3 is based on the manager-agent model and works at the application layer of the OSI model. SNMPv3 uses UDP as its transport protocol and encrypts all its messages with AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) or DES (Data Encryption Standard). In the above scenario, Lorenzo did not implement SNMPv3 to provide network management and monitoring for network devices. Option C is incorrect, as it does not identify the remote authentication protocol employed by Lorenzo in the above scenario. POP3S (Post Office Protocol version 3 Secure) is a protocol that provides secure email access and retrieval for email clients from email servers. POP3S is based on the client-server model and works at the application layer of the OSI model. POP3S uses TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) as its transport protocol and encrypts all its messages with SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) or TLS (Transport Layer Security). In the above scenario, Lorenzo did not implement POP3S to provide secure email access and retrieval for email clients from email servers. Option D is incorrect, as it does not identify the remote authentication protocol employed by Lorenzo in the above scenario. IMAPS (Internet Message Access Protocol Secure) is a protocol that provides secure email access and management for email clients from email servers. IMAPS is based on the client-server model and works at the application layer of the OSI model. IMAPS uses TCP as its transport protocol and encrypts all its messages with SSL or TLS. In the above scenario, Lorenzo did not implement IMAPS to provide secure email access and management for email clients from email servers.
References: , Section 8.2

NEW QUESTION 6
Paul, a computer user, has shared information with his colleague using an online application. The online application used by Paul has been incorporated with the latest encryption mechanism. This mechanism encrypts data by using a sequence of photons that have a spinning trait while traveling from one end to another, and these photons keep changing their shapes during their course through filters: vertical, horizontal, forward slash, and backslash.
Identify the encryption mechanism demonstrated in the above scenario.

• A. Quantum cryptography
• B. Homomorphic encryption
• C. Rivest Shamir Adleman encryption
• D. Elliptic curve cryptography

Answer: A

Explanation:
Quantum cryptography is the encryption mechanism demonstrated in the above scenario. Quantum cryptography is a branch of cryptography that uses quantum physics to secure data transmission and communication. Quantum cryptography encrypts data by using a sequence of photons that have a spinning trait, called polarization, while traveling from one end to another. These photons keep changing their shapes, called states, during their course through filters: vertical, horizontal, forward slash, and backslash. Quantum cryptography ensures that any attempt to intercept or tamper with the data will alter the quantum states of the photons and be detected by the sender and receiver . Homomorphic encryption is a type of encryption that allows computations to be performed on encrypted data without decrypting it first. Rivest Shamir Adleman (RSA) encryption is a type of asymmetric encryption that uses two keys, public and private, to encrypt and decrypt data. Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) is a type of asymmetric encryption that uses mathematical curves to generate keys and perform encryption and decryption.

NEW QUESTION 7
Ryleigh, a system administrator, was instructed to perform a full back up of organizational data on a regular basis. For this purpose, she used a backup technique on a fixed date when the employees are not accessing the system i.e., when a service-level down time is allowed a full backup is taken.
Identify the backup technique utilized by Ryleigh in the above scenario.

• A. Nearline backup
• B. Cold backup
• C. Hot backup
• D. Warm backup

Answer: B

Explanation:
Cold backup is the backup technique utilized by Ryleigh in the above scenario. Cold backup is a backup technique that involves taking a full backup of data when the system or database is offline or shut down. Cold backup ensures that the data is consistent and not corrupted by any ongoing transactions or operations. Cold backup is usually performed on a fixed date or time when the service-level downtime is allowed or scheduled . Nearline backup is a backup technique that involves storing data on a medium that is not immediately accessible, but can be retrieved within a short time. Hot backup is a backup technique that involves taking a backup of data while the system or database is online or running. Warm backup is a backup technique that involves taking a backup of data while the system or database is partially online or running.

NEW QUESTION 8
Shawn, a forensic officer, was appointed to investigate a crime scene that had occurred at a coffee shop. As a part of investigation, Shawn collected the mobile device from the victim, which may contain potential evidence to identify the culprits.
Which of the following points must Shawn follow while preserving the digital evidence? (Choose three.)

• A. Never record the screen display of the device
• B. Turn the device ON if it is OFF
• C. Do not leave the device as it is if it is ON
• D. Make sure that the device is charged

Answer: BCD

Explanation:
Turn the device ON if it is OFF, do not leave the device as it is if it is ON, and make sure that the device is charged are some of the points that Shawn must follow while preserving the digital evidence in the above scenario. Digital evidence is any information or data stored or transmitted in digital form that can be used in a legal proceeding or investigation. Digital evidence can be found on various devices, such as computers, mobile phones, tablets, etc. Preserving digital evidence is a crucial step in forensic investigation that involves protecting and maintaining the integrity and authenticity of digital evidence from any alteration or damage. Some of the points that Shawn must follow while preserving digital evidence are:
✑ Turn the device ON if it is OFF: If the device is OFF, Shawn must turn it ON to prevent any data loss or encryption that may occur when the device is powered off. Shawn must also document any password or PIN required to unlock or access the device.
✑ Do not leave the device as it is if it is ON: If the device is ON, Shawn must not leave it as it is or use it for any purpose other than preserving digital evidence. Shawn must also disable any network connections or communication features on the device, such as Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, cellular data, etc., to prevent any remote access or deletion of data by unauthorized parties.
✑ Make sure that the device is charged: Shawn must ensure that the device has enough battery power to prevent any data loss or corruption that may occur due to sudden shutdown or low battery. Shawn must also use a write blocker or a Faraday bag to isolate the device from any external interference or signals.
Never record the screen display of the device is not a point that Shawn must follow while preserving digital evidence. On contrary, Shawn should record or photograph the screen display of the device to capture any relevant information or messages that may appear on the screen. Recording or photographing the screen display of the device can also help document any changes or actions performed on the device during preservation.

NEW QUESTION 9
A disgruntled employee has set up a RAT (Remote Access Trojan) server in one of the machines in the target network to steal sensitive corporate documents. The IP address of the target machine where the RAT is installed is 20.20.10.26. Initiate a remote connection to the target machine from the "Attacker Machine-1" using the Theef client. Locate the "Sensitive Corporate Documents" folder in the target machine's Documents directory and determine the number of files. Mint: Theef folder is located at Z:\CCT-Tools\CCT Module 01 Information Security Threats and Vulnerabilities\Remote Access Trojans (RAT)\Theef of the Attacker Machine1.

• A. 2
• B. 4
• C. 5
• D. 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
The number of files in the “Sensitive Corporate Documents” folder is 4. This can be verified by initiating a remote connection to the target machine from the “Attacker Machine-1” using Theef client. Theef is a Remote Access Trojan (RAT) that allows an attacker to remotely control a victim’s machine and perform various malicious activities. To connect to the target machine using Theef client, one can follow these steps:
Launch Theef client from Z:\CCT-Tools\CCT Module 01 Information Security Threats and Vulnerabilities\Remote Access Trojans (RAT)\Theef on the “Attacker Machine-1”.
Enter the IP address of the target machine (20.20.10.26) and click on Connect.
Wait for a few seconds until a connection is established and a message box appears saying “Connection Successful”.
Click on OK to close the message box and access the remote desktop of the target machine.
Navigate to the Documents directory and locate the “Sensitive Corporate Documents” folder.
Open the folder and count the number of files in it. The screenshot below shows an example of performing these steps: References: [Theef Client Tutorial], [Screenshot of Theef client showing remote desktop and folder]

NEW QUESTION 10
Dany, a member of a forensic team, was actively involved in an online crime investigation process. Dany's main responsibilities included providing legal advice on conducting the investigation and addressing legal issues involved in the forensic investigation process. Identify the role played by Dany in the above scenario.

• A. Attorney
• B. Incident analyzer
• C. Expert witness
• D. Incident responder

Answer: A

Explanation:
Attorney is the role played by Dany in the above scenario. Attorney is a member of a forensic team who provides legal advice on conducting the investigation and addresses legal issues involved in the forensic investigation process. Attorney can help with obtaining search warrants, preserving evidence, complying with laws and regulations, and presenting cases in court3. References: Attorney Role in Forensic Investigation

NEW QUESTION 11
Jase. a security team member at an organization, was tasked with ensuring uninterrupted business operations under hazardous conditions. Thus, Jase implemented a deterrent control strategy to minimize the occurrence of threats, protect critical business areas, and mitigate the impact of threats. Which of the following business continuity and disaster recovery activities did Jase perform in this scenario?

• A. Prevention
• B. Response
• C. Restoration
• D. Recovery

Answer: A

Explanation:
Prevention is the business continuity and disaster recovery activity performed by Jase in this scenario. Prevention is an activity that involves implementing a deterrent control strategy to minimize the occurrence of threats, protect critical business areas, and mitigate the impact of threats. Prevention can include measures such as backup systems, firewalls, antivirus software, or physical security1. References: Prevention Activity in BCDR

NEW QUESTION 12
Jordan, a network administrator in an organization, was instructed to identify network- related issues and improve network performance. While troubleshooting the network, he received a message indicating that the datagram could not be forwarded owing to the unavailability of IP-related services (such as FTP or web services) on the target host, which of the following network issues did Jordan find in this scenario?

• A. Time exceeded message
• B. Destination unreachable message
• C. Unreachable networks
• D. Network cable is unplugged

Answer: B

Explanation:
Destination unreachable message is the network issue that Jordan found in this scenario. Destination unreachable message is a type of ICMP message that indicates that the datagram could not be forwarded owing to the unavailability of IP-related services (such as FTP or web services) on the target host. Destination unreachable message can be caused by various reasons, such as incorrect routing, firewall blocking, or host configuration problems1.
References: Destination Unreachable Message

NEW QUESTION 13
in a security incident, the forensic investigation has isolated a suspicious file named "security_update.exe". You are asked to analyze the file in the Documents folder of the "Attacker Machine-1" to determine whether it is malicious. Analyze the suspicious file and identify the malware signature. (Practical Question)

• A. Stuxnet
• B. KLEZ
• C. ZEUS
• D. Conficker

Answer: A

Explanation:
Stuxnet is the malware signature of the suspicious file in the above scenario. Malware is malicious software that can harm or compromise the security or functionality of a system or network. Malware can include various types, such as viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware, spyware, etc. Malware signature is a unique pattern or characteristic that identifies a specific malware or malware family. Malware signature can be used to detect or analyze malware by comparing it with known malware signatures in databases or repositories. To analyze the suspicious file and identify the malware signature, one has to follow these steps:
✑ Navigate to Documents folder of Attacker Machine-1.
✑ Right-click on security_update.exe file and select Scan with VirusTotal option.
✑ Wait for VirusTotal to scan the file and display the results.
✑ Observe the detection ratio and details.
The detection ratio is 59/70, which means that 59 out of 70 antivirus engines detected the file as malicious. The details show that most antivirus engines detected the file as Stuxnet, which is a malware signature of a worm that targets industrial control systems (ICS). Stuxnet can be used to sabotage or damage ICS by modifying their code or behavior. Therefore, Stuxnet is the malware signature of the suspicious file. KLEZ is a malware signature of a worm that spreads via email and network shares. KLEZ can be used to infect or overwrite files, disable antivirus software, or display fake messages. ZEUS is a malware signature of a trojan that targets banking and financial systems. ZEUS can be used to steal or modify banking credentials, perform fraudulent transactions, or install other malware. Conficker is a malware signature of a worm that exploits a vulnerability in Windows operating systems. Conficker can be used to create a botnet, disable security services, or download other malware

NEW QUESTION 14
Zayn, a network specialist at an organization, used Wireshark to perform network analysis. He selected a Wireshark menu that provided a summary ol captured packets, IO graphs, and flow graphs. Identify the Wireshark menu selected by Zayn in this scenario.

• A. Status bar
• B. Analyze
• C. Statistics
• D. Packet list panel

Answer: C

Explanation:
Statistics is the Wireshark menu selected by Zayn in this scenario. Statistics is a Wireshark menu that provides a summary of captured packets, IO graphs, and flow graphs. Statistics can be used to analyze various aspects of network traffic, such as protocols, endpoints, conversations, or packet lengths3.
References: Wireshark Statistics Menu

NEW QUESTION 15
A software company develops new software products by following the best practices for secure application development. Dawson, a software analyst, is responsible for checking the performance of applications in the client's network to determine any issue faced by end users while accessing the application. Which of the following tiers of the secure application development lifecycle involves
checking the application
performance?

• A. Development
• B. Staging
• C. Testing
• D. Quality assurance (QA)

Answer: C

Explanation:
Testing is the tier of the secure application development lifecycle that involves checking the application performance in the above scenario. Secure application development is a process that involves designing, developing, deploying, and maintaining software applications that are secure and resilient to threats and attacks. Secure application development can be based on various models or frameworks, such as SDLC (Software Development Life Cycle), OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project), etc. Secure application development consists of various tiers or stages that perform different tasks or roles. Testing is a tier of the secure application development lifecycle that involves verifying and validating the functionality and security of software applications before releasing them to end users. Testing can include various types of tests, such as unit testing, integration testing, system testing, performance testing, security testing, etc. Testing can be used to check the application performance and identify any errors, bugs, or vulnerabilities in the software applications. In the scenario, a software company develops new software products by following the best practices for secure application development. Dawson, a software analyst, is responsible for checking the performance of applications in the client’s network to determine any issue faced by end users while accessing the application. This means that he performs testing for this purpose. Development is a tier of the secure application development lifecycle that involves creating and coding software applications according to the design and specifications. Staging is a tier of the secure application development lifecycle that involves deploying software applications to a simulated or pre-production environment for testing or evaluation purposes. Quality assurance (QA) is a tier of the secure application development lifecycle that involves ensuring that software applications meet the quality standards and expectations of end users and stakeholders

NEW QUESTION 16
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